The real question we come back to is why certain drugs are classified the way they currently are, and how it currently seems to make no sense. Perfect examples of this nonsensical system are opiate derivatives like Heroin, Morphine, and Fentanyl. Fentanyl is far more potent and addictive a drug than Morphine, or even Heroin. But Heroin is defined as a Schedule I drug, and Fentanyl as a Schedule II. It is carefully restricted and used very often medically, but it is more dangerous and more addictive than Heroine. So despite the fact that it should be classified as a Schedule I drug by its mere nature, it is not simply because it does currently have medical use. This is sadly just one of the many inconsistent examples found in the current classification system.

But again, this comes back to the question of just what exactly is Schedule I? The definition as a straight answer is that Schedule I drugs are those considered to have a high tendency for abuse, and currently have no accepted medical use. They cannot be found in a pharmacy, and are currently not drugs that any doctor can (or in some cases should) prescribe. But that isn’t always true is it? Marijuana for example is classified as Schedule I, and yet in many states it can now be prescribed by a licensed medical professional for a patient who qualifies. Because of this shouldn’t the schedule be changed, or at least the specific classification of this one in particular?